Free NBRC TMC Exam Practice Question 4

A patient is diaphoretic with an axillary temperature of 102 F. The most appropriate treatment is?

  1. Diuretics
  2. Positive inotropic agents
  3. Antibiotics
  4. Morphine

Explanations

  1. Incorrect. There is no evidence of heart failure or fluid overload as a cause of the diaphoresis.
  2. Incorrect. There is no information leading us to suspect CHF.
  3. Correct. The patient’s diaphoresis and fever indicate a possibility of infection. Therefore, antibiotics are the correct response.
  4. Incorrect. There is no indication for Morphine.